lawgator1
Senior Member
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- Aug 8, 2005
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Do I understand this correctly? That because 400 years ago people were able to kill other people without guns, that means we should just ignore the fact that the presence of guns makes it infinitely easier for people to kill more people, and at a far greater rate and with mass casualty effect?
If that is truly your claim, then the quality of argument in the forum has fallen to a level below that of kindergarten.
If that is truly your claim, then the quality of argument in the forum has fallen to a level below that of kindergarten.