RockyTop85
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No, they are not relevant in the least when discussing a correlation between gun ownership and violent crime. First they include suicide in their firearm suicide statistics, suicide is not a violent crime. Second they go into the statistics of being shot while in possession of a firearm vs not being in possession while being being assaulted. That is nonsense since the assault is a violent crime.
I don’t think you understood it.
Siegel, Ross, and King III (2013) examined firearm prevalence and firearm homicides from 1981 to 2010. The authors collected information for the fifty states from 1981 to 2010 and used suicide by firearm as a proxy for firearm prevalence. Using a negative binomial regression model the researchers found that firearm prevalence was a significant predictor of firearm homicide. In fact, Siegel, Ross, and King III (2013) stated that a one standard deviation increase in firearm prevalence was associated with a 12.9% increase in the homicide rate.
The part in bold is the exact same correlation you were trying to say didn’t exist on a national level. They look at it regionally and say the data supports a correlation.
So it seems like that, at least, deserves a response that doesn’t mischaracterize it or ignore it, right?
