OrangeEmpire
The White Debonair
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Paper
Article
Research paper
First, following the Roe vs. Wade decision in 1973, more women at risk of having children who could later engage in criminal activityteen-agers
The operative word here is "could" later engage in criminal activity. The fact is they do not know for sure if they "would" later engage in criminal activity, do not know for sure what percentage would later engage in criminal activity, are ASSUMING some, or some significant number WOULD engage in criminal activity, and therefore, their conclusion is pure speculation.
As evidence for their findings, the researchers point to data regarding the timing of the crime drop:
Yes this is called a "correlation." From this correlation they draw causation. It is fallacious to draw causation from correlation. What reasoning do they rely upon to go from correlation to causation?
As evidence for their findings, the researchers point to data regarding the timing of the crime drop: the first generation of pregnancies terminated under legalized abortion would have otherwise resulted in children who reached the peak ages for criminal activity, 18 to 24, in the early 1990s. Increases in 1970s abortions by high-risk mothers may have lowered the number of potential criminals coming of age in the 1990s.
Oh yes this glorious reasoning. The "after X, therefore, because of X," fallacious reasoning, AKA post hoc, ergo propter hoc (Latin translation, after this, therefore, because of this). Here, the researchers assert since the drop in crime occurred AFTER legalized abortion, then legalized abortion must be the cause. Well this is fallacious reasoning as it assumes it is nothing more than a correlation, as expressed above, and are relying upon nothing more than since X came after Y, then X must be because of Y. This is erroneous, speculative, and fallacious.
In fact they use language indicate they are "speculating." Increases in 1970s abortions by high-risk mothers may have lowered the number of potential criminals coming of age in the 1990s.
I want to emphasize the following three words of, "may have lowered ."
by high-risk mothers
Well I would be most interested in reading the criteria for identifying a "high risk mother," in other words a mother which is at a high risk for giving birth to a future criminal deviant. Do they rely upon the trusted, tried, and true phrenology? The article is entirely devoid of any criteria relied upon to determine which mothers were at a "high risk" for birthing criminal deviants.
Happy reading!
Article
Research paper
First, following the Roe vs. Wade decision in 1973, more women at risk of having children who could later engage in criminal activityteen-agers
The operative word here is "could" later engage in criminal activity. The fact is they do not know for sure if they "would" later engage in criminal activity, do not know for sure what percentage would later engage in criminal activity, are ASSUMING some, or some significant number WOULD engage in criminal activity, and therefore, their conclusion is pure speculation.
As evidence for their findings, the researchers point to data regarding the timing of the crime drop:
Yes this is called a "correlation." From this correlation they draw causation. It is fallacious to draw causation from correlation. What reasoning do they rely upon to go from correlation to causation?
As evidence for their findings, the researchers point to data regarding the timing of the crime drop: the first generation of pregnancies terminated under legalized abortion would have otherwise resulted in children who reached the peak ages for criminal activity, 18 to 24, in the early 1990s. Increases in 1970s abortions by high-risk mothers may have lowered the number of potential criminals coming of age in the 1990s.
Oh yes this glorious reasoning. The "after X, therefore, because of X," fallacious reasoning, AKA post hoc, ergo propter hoc (Latin translation, after this, therefore, because of this). Here, the researchers assert since the drop in crime occurred AFTER legalized abortion, then legalized abortion must be the cause. Well this is fallacious reasoning as it assumes it is nothing more than a correlation, as expressed above, and are relying upon nothing more than since X came after Y, then X must be because of Y. This is erroneous, speculative, and fallacious.
In fact they use language indicate they are "speculating." Increases in 1970s abortions by high-risk mothers may have lowered the number of potential criminals coming of age in the 1990s.
I want to emphasize the following three words of, "may have lowered ."
by high-risk mothers
Well I would be most interested in reading the criteria for identifying a "high risk mother," in other words a mother which is at a high risk for giving birth to a future criminal deviant. Do they rely upon the trusted, tried, and true phrenology? The article is entirely devoid of any criteria relied upon to determine which mothers were at a "high risk" for birthing criminal deviants.
Happy reading!
