82_VOL_83
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if the entire room of reporters asks no questions about it, they're not doing their job
$2.5M tells you they didn't have much of a case. And just for kicks I decided to look up the modern legal definition of "sexual assault." We are so screwed.
Quote:
Originally Posted by vol66 View Post
Smart move on UT's part with SEC Media days in less than a week. Jones and the players might not have to handle questions on the topic.
'You ask the question, you go straight to the back pocket. The back pocket is big enough for every name in the room. There's no in between -- you're either on the table with us, or in the back pocket against us.'
I looked it up too and here's what first came up on Google:
Sexual assault is any type of sexual contact or behavior that occurs without the explicit consent of the recipient. Falling under the definition of sexual assault are sexual activities as forced sexual intercourse, forcible sodomy, child molestation, incest, fondling, and attempted rape. Apr 1, 2016
So What's your concern? Of course, "explicit" is open to interpretation but here's the definition that first popped up on Google:
Explicit - stated clearly and in detail, leaving no room for confusion or doubt.
Sounds pretty reasonable to me. If your argument is that the current environment on what could be construed as sexual assault in our current PC/war on men environment, than, yes, I agree. But I see nothing wrong with the current definition at face value.
I looked it up too and here's what first came up on Google:
Sexual assault is any type of sexual contact or behavior that occurs without the explicit consent of the recipient. Falling under the definition of sexual assault are sexual activities as forced sexual intercourse, forcible sodomy, child molestation, incest, fondling, and attempted rape. Apr 1, 2016
So What's your concern? Of course, "explicit" is open to interpretation but here's the definition that first popped up on Google:
Explicit - stated clearly and in detail, leaving no room for confusion or doubt.
Sounds pretty reasonable to me. If your argument is that the current environment on what could be construed as sexual assault in our current PC/war on men environment, than, yes, I agree. But I see nothing wrong with the current definition at face value.
Okay, for starters, who is the recipient? Because men can be assaulted too.
Secondly, explicit consent: my husband doesn't ask me for explicit consent, yet he's not assaulting me.
There is too much grey area with your provided definition. No means no. Yes means yes. No declaration?
I don't see anything wrong with the definition I copy/pasted unless the interpretation of explicit is too rigid or strict. The book of law usually leans more in the direction of loose interpretation (Jacobellis v. Ohio, 1964, as an example that has had significant consequences IMO). Perhaps you can suggest a better word? Are you of the view that "consensual" would be more appropriate? I suppose there is a difference in the two and I could get behind that.
Explicit consent is assumed in a properly functioning marriage, I would think, so I don't see your analogy as weakening the inclusion of "explicit". But, now that I'm discussing it, I guess "consensual" would make me more comfortable if I were back in college. The interpretation of the letter of the law makes navigating how to properly establish law very challenging.
Consensual would be a better start. And a person can rape their spouse. Would investigators be sent to determine if a marriage with an accusation is properly functioning? And sex outside marriage. Do intentions have to be stated and approved before each intimate situation? It's all just too rigid. I realize there has to be a definition, but I just don't think what you provided should be it. To me, consensual - without any form of resistance (verbal or physical) perhaps.
Knowing when a woman is sending clear signals she wants to have sex is already confusing enough, even as an adult. :mf_surrender: Mix in college and alcohol and, yeah, "explicit" becomes a dangerous word to include in a legal definition of sexual assault. Anyone who's had intercourse outside of monogamous, committed relationships has probably had a partner who experienced "buyers remorse" afterward. Explicit could potentially put all of those individuals at risk.
"Reasonable mutual consent" or something in that spirit might be more appropriate.
As an aside, I am of the opinion that the consumption of alcohol should not factor in at all unless it is to the degree that it inhibits an individual from expressing that consent. I'm now remembering how dangerous drunk girl sex became while I was in school. Thanks for the friendly back-and-forth discussion. :hi:
I looked it up too and here's what first came up on Google:
Sexual assault is any type of sexual contact or behavior that occurs without the explicit consent of the recipient. Falling under the definition of sexual assault are sexual activities as forced sexual intercourse, forcible sodomy, child molestation, incest, fondling, and attempted rape. Apr 1, 2016
So What's your concern? Of course, "explicit" is open to interpretation but here's the definition that first popped up on Google:
Explicit - stated clearly and in detail, leaving no room for confusion or doubt.
Sounds pretty reasonable to me. If your argument is that the current environment on what could be construed as sexual assault in our current PC/war on men environment, than, yes, I agree. But I see nothing wrong with the current definition at face value.
You need to take a course in Power Googling. The "legal" definition is much much broader than that.