On slavery reparation payments.

#1
R

RobsPics

6/12/2016 NEVER FORGET
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#1
No doubt about it, reparations should have been paid to all slaves and their family during the later half of the 1800s soon after slavery officially ended. Just like when Ronald Reagan authorized reparation payments to those people of Japanese decent who were forced into internment camps.

But now, it's been over 150 years since slavery ended. So it would be difficult to trace ancestry. And it could be quiet expensive since so many generations have already passed.

But if a person could trace ancestry back to a slave, I could possibly favor a reparation payment. Because that person would be an heir to a slave. So if the slave is owed a reparation payment that has never been paid, then his/her heir has a justifiable claim to the payment.
 
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#2
#2
Are we going to pay reparations to every disenfranchised minority in the US?

Should the US pay reparations to people of Jewish descent for not getting involved earlier in WWII?

What about the treatment of Irish immigrants, many of whom we slaves in the US?

The list can go on...
 
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#4
#4
The GOVERNMMENT forced the Japanese Americans into the camps. The GOVERNMENT did NOT own slaves. HUGE difference.
 
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#5
#5
SergeantVol said:
Are we going to pay reparations to every disenfranchised minority in the US?

Should the US pay reparations to people of Jewish descent for not getting involved earlier in WWII?

What about the treatment of Irish immigrants, many of whom we slaves in the US?

The list can go on...
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I didn't make any racial distinction in regards to slavery. If the government openly endorsed or tolerated slavery of any person, then reparations should have been paid to that person or his family
 
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#6
#6
RobsPics said:
No doubt about it, reparations should have been paid to all slaves and their family during the later half of the 1800s soon after slavery officially ended. Just like when Ronald Reagan paid those people of Japanese decent who were forced into internment camps.

But now, it's been over 150 years since slavery ended. So it would be difficult to trace ancestry. And it could be quiet expensive since so many generations have already passed.

But if a person could trace ancestry back to a slave, I could possibly favor a reparation payment. Because that person would be an heir to a slave. So if the slave is owed a reparation payment that has never been paid, then his/her heir has a justifiable claim to the payment.
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I take it that you see no problem with taking that money from people whose families never owned slaves.

You would also need to deduct the slave's housing allowance and land use from their reparations, since they got room and board for free.
 
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#10
#10
1972 Grad said:
I take it that you see no problem with taking that money from people whose families never owned slaves.
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Tax payers often pay for the misdeeds of the government. Ronald Reagan authorized taking money from people who never interned Japanese people.


1972 Grad said:
You would also need to deduct the slave's housing allowance and land use from their reparations, since they got room and board for free.
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That's only if you are calculating the reparation payment based against the lost earning potential of the slave. However, if you calculate the payment based on the arrested development of that slave, then the housing costs is irrelevant.
 
#12
#12
This comes up every 4 years that aligns with the presidential election ... It's called get out the vote
 
#14
#14
At least the OP's first sentence makes sense. If reparations were to be paid, it should have happened when actual former slaves were still alive. Reparation should not happen now.
 
#15
#15
tumscalcium said:
How much will these reparations be? Who will have to pay them?
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I could possibly see the formula for determining payment based on the actual length of enslavement. So the ancestor who was enslaved for 60 years would be owed more money versus the slave who was freed earlier in life.

I could also envision a plan where a payment is diminished if the slave ancestor received lands after slavery (40 acres and a mule).
 
#17
#17
RobsPics said:
I could possibly see the formula for determining payment based on the actual length enslavement. So the ancestor who was enslaved for 60 years would be owed more money versus the slave who was freed earlier in life.

I could also envision a plan where a payment is diminished if the slave ancestor received lands after slavery (40 acres and a mule).
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Yeah.............this will totally work............
 
#20
#20
RobsPics said:
I could possibly see the formula for determining payment based on the actual length of enslavement. So the ancestor who was enslaved for 60 years would be owed more money versus the slave who was freed earlier in life.

I could also envision a plan where a payment is diminished if the slave ancestor received lands after slavery (40 acres and a mule).
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Why don't you quit trolling for now, and go watch the Walking Dead?
 
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#21
#21
ajvol01 said:
Serious question:

How much would be deducted from government housing, welfare payments, food stamps/EBT, etc?
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If the reparation payment is high enough to disqualify a person from receiving government benefits, then the recipient should have a choice...accept the payment or the continued receipt of the benefit. Not both.
 
#22
#22
RobsPics said:
If the reparation payment is high enough to disqualify a person from receiving government benefits, then the recipient should have a choice...accept the payment or the continued receipt of the benefit. Not both.
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I'm talking about benefits already received.
 
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#24
#24
ajvol01 said:
I'm talking about benefits already received.
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In that case, the benefits already received would have no bearing on the reparation paid.

Just like when a welfare/ebt recipient later gains significant employment. The government does not garnish their present wages to pay for past benefits.
 
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